Symantec 자격증 ASC-029 시험문제와 답

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-029
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Enterprise Security 2010)
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NO.1 When defining location switching criteria, which two can be used? (Select two.)
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s ne t w o r k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C

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NO.4 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 At an administrator ¯ s fir s t m ee ti ng w it h a cus t o m e r t hey r ea li ze t ha t t he ir cus t o m e r i s expec ti ng t he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ s r esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s m anage r
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C

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Symantec ST0-097 덤프데모

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-097
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
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NO.1 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.3 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.4 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.8 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.9 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.11 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.12 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.15 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-136
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment)
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NO.1 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

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NO.2 A system administrator would like to verify whether a recent virus on their network exists In an image
before restoring. What is the recommended method to make the flies available for a virus scan to check
for this?
A. Restore the image to the machine, then run a virus scan.
B. Mount the Image In Windows and run a virus scan.
C. Restore files to an isolated directory using Recovery Point Browser
D. Use Google Desktop to access the files.
Answer: B

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NO.3 To prevent unauthorized access to recovery points when stored on a network share, what should be
enabled in the Job definition?
A. T-10 encryption
B. Pretty GoodPrivacy(PGP) encryption
C. SymantecEndpointEncryption
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

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NO.6 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 Which requirement needs to tie met, to create a cold backup from a non-functioning system using the
Symantec Recovery Disk?
A. An active partition must be set
B. A valid license key for Symantec System Recovery 2011 needs to be used.
C. The computer needs to first have Symantec System Recovery 2011 installed.
D. A custom Symantec Recovery Disk needs to be used.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two drive types can be used as the destination drive in die Copy My Hard Drive Wizard? (Select
two)
A. SATA attached hard drive
B. share on a different Windows Server
C. Blu-ray drive
D. network-attached storage
E. USB attached hard drive
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which option should be used to convert a recovery point where a FAT32 file system Is the
destination1?
A. Run windows Mint-Setup
B. Utilize temporary storage location
C. Split virtual disk into 2 GB (vmdk) files
D. Rename file to DOS standard
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.11 Which command line option would be used to divide a recovery point file into separate parts using
Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. -raw [number]
B. -seg (number)
C. -span (number]
D. -set (number]
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator of the Symantec System Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution needs to
determine which managed client computers have an unsupported version of SSR installed.
Which web part name of the Home screen would display this for the administrator?
A. Alerts and Failures
B. Backup Status
C. Operating System Statistics
D. License Status
Answer: A

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NO.14 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

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NO.15 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-118
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
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NO.1 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC.

NO.2 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.4 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.6 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.8 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.9 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.11 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: BD

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NO.16 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.17 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.19 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC.

NO.20 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE.

NO.21 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: CDE

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NO.24 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions
should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.25 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.26 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each group. How
many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in the
environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.27 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: AD

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NO.30 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-153
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
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Q&A: 67 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-22

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NO.1 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.2 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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NO.3 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.4 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.5 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.6 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-174
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 Technical Assessment )
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업데이트: 2014-04-22

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NO.1 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two possible ways to provide incident match text information? (Select two.)
A. CSV export
B. Email notification
C. Reporting API
D. Syslog notification
E. XML export
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Network Monitor server has been installed and the networking components configured accordingly.
The server is receiving traffic, but fails to detect incidents. Running Wireshark indicates that the desired
traffic is reaching the detection server. What is the most likely cause for this behavior?
A. The mirrored port is sending corrupted packets.
B. The wrong interface is selected in the configuration.
C. The configuration is set to process GET requests.
D. The communication to the database server is interrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 A user attempts to run Lookup Attributes manually on an incident. On the Incident List page under
Incident Actions, the option for Lookup Attributes is missing. Which section in the Plugins.properties file is
misconfigured?
A. Plugin Execution Chain is undefined.
B. Attribute Lookup parameters is set to "message".
C. Automatic plugin reload is set to false.
D. Automatic Lookup is set to false.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page athttps://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which option describes the three-tier installation type for Symantec Data Loss Prevention?
A. Install the database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server all on the same computer.
B. Install the Oracle database and the Enforce Server on the same computer, then install detection
servers on separate computers.
C. Install the Oracle Client (SQL*Plus and Database Utilities) on three detection servers.
D. Install the Oracle database, the Enforce Server, and a detection server on separate computers.
Answer: C

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NO.9 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A. Network Discover
B. Network Protect
C. Endpoint Prevent
D. Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.13 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.14 In which two ways can the default listener port for a detection server be modified? (Select two.)
A. through the Enforce user interface under System > Overview
B. by editing the Communication.properties file on a detection server
C. through the Enforce user interface under Manage > Policies
D. by editing the MonitorController.properties file on a detection server
E. by editing the jaas.config file on a detection server
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What is the function of the Remote Indexer?
A. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles and Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a
remote server
B. to create Exact Data Matching (EDM) profiles on a remote server
C. to create policy templates on a remote server
D. to create Index Document Matching (IDM) profiles on a remote server
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is one benefit of using FlexResponse for Network Discover?
A. Response rules trigger varying actions depending on which DLP Agent created the incident.
B. An email can be encrypted as it is being transmitted.
C. Displayed incident data can be redacted from the Data Loss Prevention interface automatically.
D. Customizable incident remediation actions can be manually executed.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a possible solution when a Network Discover server is unable to scan a remote file server?
A. mount the IPC$ share on the file server
B. verify that the target file server is a Windows 2000 server
C. use the fully qualified name (FQDN) of the server
D. verify that the file server has .NET services running
Answer: C

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NO.18 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which detection server requires two physical network interface cards?
A. Network Protect
B. Network Discover
C. Endpoint Discover
D. Network Monitor
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which is the correct traffic flow for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution?
A. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Exchange Server > final destination
B. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > final destination
C. iPad > VPN > Web proxy > Tablet Server > Enforce Server > final destination
D. iPad > VPN > Tablet Server > Web proxy > final destination
Answer: B

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시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 for Windows)
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Q&A: 171 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-22

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NO.1 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.12 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.14 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

Symantec   250-352   250-352

NO.17 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.20 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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Symantec 자격증 ST0-172 시험덤프

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-172
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows Technical Assessment)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 108 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-22

ST0-172 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-172.html

NO.1 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server has a Microsoft Windows policy that protects over 500
servers using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The backup window for this policy is between
3:00 PM and 5:00 PM and is unshared with any other policy. When the backup window for this policy is
open, the overall performance of the disk storage unit gets degraded. Which setting should the
administrator modify to reduce the number of concurrent streams writing to the disk storage unit to 10
during the backup window?
A. disable multiplexing on the policy schedules
B. set the "Maximum backup copies" host property to 10
C. enable multiplexing for the storage unit and set the value to 10
D. enable the "Limit Jobs per policy" attribute
Answer: D

Symantec pdf   ST0-172시험문제   ST0-172 pdf   ST0-172

NO.3 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-172   ST0-172   ST0-172자격증

NO.4 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.8 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-172   ST0-172인증

NO.9 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-172자격증   ST0-172   ST0-172   ST0-172

NO.10 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-172   ST0-172 dumps

NO.12 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-172 dump   ST0-172

NO.13 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of 1. The
host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow backups to
span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec NetBackup 7.5
use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-172   ST0-172   ST0-172덤프

NO.15 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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